Welcome back to 100 lies The God Culture teaches about the Philippines. Today's lie concerns Timothy Jay Schwab's claim that Maharlika is a Hebrew word. As we shall see that is simply not true.
Tim teaches this lie in his videos.
Maharlika Origin. Is the Philippines Changing it's Name? Solomon's Gold Series - Part 6B |
1:06:01 The real complete history of the Philippines as the land of Ophir and a Lost Tribes location demonstrates a direct Hebrew etymology. Maharlika is Bride of Messiah as some may term the Bride of Christ and the land of the Lost Tribes of Israel. Yes, we do prove all of that.
Tim also makes this claim in his book The Search for King Solomon's Treasure.
The Search for Solomon's Treasure, pgs. 192-193 |
Maharlika:
Former Name Associated with the PhilippinesHebrew: mahar: מהר: to acquire by paying a purchase price, endow, surely, to bargain (for a wife), i.e. To wed. [238]Hebrew: lecha: l’cha: lekha: לך: to/for/of you (indicating possession). ]239[Our Interpretation: His Bride Purchased With A PriceWe all know this as a reference to His ekklesia in the last days. Very interesting. There are linguists who represent the general academic position on this word originating in the Sanskrit as Mahardhika. No doubt it seems sort of close, but here is the challenge to that thinking. They have not followed the word’s migrations and evolution which requires one skipping and going back a generation and then changing the word and somehow we are supposed to believe that is logical etymologically.
This word migrated in use to Indonesia and Malaysia as Merdeka not Mahardhika. That word then travelled into Mindanao and was in use as Merdeka but not Mahardhika. However, we are then told we must believe that it is logical to say that the Filipinos took this word back to it’s origin in Sanskrit and made it longer back to Mahardhika and then, transformed it into Maharlika with no historical basis in the slightest yet it is a direct Hebrew word when one audits it. We find it far more logical to acknowledge the connection to Israel and the Hebrew origin of Ophir than to execute such gymnastics which never relate.
How is it that Maharlika and Guimaras both lead in Hebrew to the Bride of Messiah? We will cover this in the prophecy chapter and then, all will come into focus. Yah’s people are indeed in the Philippines. Some of these words have the same meaning in Philippine languages and Hebrew.
Tim claims Maharlika is a compound word composed of the Hebrew words "mahar" and "lecha." Mahar is Strongs #4117.
Solomon's Treasure Sourcebook, pg. 190 |
Oddly enough H4117 is only used in the Bible twice in a single verse! However, there is another "mahar" which is Strong's #4116.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/h4116/kjv/wlc/0-1/ |
This word is used 64 times in 60 verses. It has nothing to do with marriage but means hastily and is translated in that manner every single time albeit using different synonyms. Is Tim unaware of this? Or did he simply pass it over as not convenient for his thesis that Filipinos are Hebrews?
If Maharlika is a Hebrew compound word how is he sure mahar is Strong's H4117 and not H4116? He does not tell us. He doesn't even mention this word. That is dishonest.
Tim's interpretation of Maharlika as Bride of Messiah is also theologically unsound. The only Bride of Christ is the church, those united to Jesus Christ through faith, not the Lost Tribes of Israel. And what sense does it make that a single class of people was named The Bride of Christ? None.
The fact is Maharlika is not a Hebrew word. It is a native Filipino word derived from Sanskrit. Crucial to understanding the etymology of Maharlika is how that word has been used to describe a class of people in the Philippines.
Fransiscan missionary Juan de Plascencia is the first to mention the maharlika class. He does so in his book On The Customs of the Taglogs. Tim mentions him in his video but brushes him off as being an untrustworthy Jesuit.
No, the Jesuits are not "the origin of the narrative." Juan de Plascencia was a Franciscan who wrote about the customs of native Filipinos. Native Filipinos are the origin of the narrative. But Tim does not care about accuracy. What is his point anyway? Are we supposed to believe Juan de Plascencia made up the word and the definition? Here is what he wrote concerning the Maharlika.
The Philippines Islands 1493-1803, vol. 7. pgs. 174, 177-178 |
In addition to the chiefs, who corresponded to our knights, there were three castes: nobles, commoners, and slaves. The nobles were the free-born whom they call maharlica. They did not pay tax or tribute to the dato, but must accompany him in war, at their own expense.
In these three classes, those who are maharlicas on both the father's and mother's side continue to be so forever; and if it happens that they should become slaves, it is through marriage, as I shall soon explain. If these maharlicas had children among their slaves, the children and their mothers became free; if one of them had children by the slave-woman of another, she was compelled, when pregnant, to give her master half of a gold tael, because of her risk of death, and for her inability to labor during the pregnancy. In such a case half of the child was free—namely, the half belonging to the father, who supplied the child with food. If he did not do this, he showed that he did not recognize him as his child, in which case the latter was wholly a slave. If a free woman had children by a slave, they were all free, provided he were not her husband.
If two persons married, of whom one was a maharlica and the other a slave, whether namamahay or sa guiguilir, the children were divided: the first, whether male or female, belonged to the father, as did the third and fifth; the second, the fourth, and the sixth fell to the mother, and so on. In this manner, if the father were free, all those who belonged to him were free; if he were a slave, all those who belonged to him were slaves; and the same applied to the mother. If there should not be more than one child he was half free and half slave. The only question here concerned the division, whether the child were male or female. Those who became slaves fell under the category of servitude which was their parent's, either namamahay or sa guiguilir. If there were an odd number of children, the odd one was half free and half slave. I have not been able to ascertain with any certainty when or at what age the division of children was made, for each one suited himself in this respect. Of these two kinds of slaves the sa guiguilir could be sold, but not the namamahay and their children, nor could they be transferred. However, they could be transferred from the barangay by inheritance, provided they remained in the same village.
In Juan de Plascencia's narrative Maharlika means a free-born noble. That contradicts Tim's claim Juan de Plascencia said they were not nobles. He also writes that this status was inherited through birth and marriage which contradicts Tim's claims. Did he even read what Juan de Plascencia wrote? It seems not. How does that correspond to Tim's alleged etymology of Maharlika meaning The Bride of Messiah? Why would free-born nobles be called Bride of Messiah? Oh, I know. Filipinos forgot their Hebrew heritage and this name is lost to time only for Timothy Jay Schwab to restore this lost knowledge.
The fact is Tim has not proven anything. He has asserted a false etymology based on his false history of the Philippines being a location of The Lost Tribes of Israel. But it turns out "mahar" has two meanings. The one Tim employs is used rarely and he does not even consider the more common word. It is evident he did not read what Juan de Plascencia wrote about the Maharlika. His etymology does not explain why the Maharlika were described as free nobles. Maharlika as a Hebrew word is simply one more lie taught by Timothy Jay Schwab who is The God Culture.